I know of no economist, politician, or otherwise, who ever speaks on the subject of the economy and politics in terms outside of treating resources as things to be bought and sold; and I also know of no economist, politician, or otherwise, who would like to see that anyone bring burdens on others.
Therefore, I challenge any economist, politician, or anyone else to answer the following question:
IF SOMEONE LACKS THE DESIRE OR CAPACITY TO SET A PRICE ON THEMSELVES, DOES THIS IMPLY THEY HAVE NO DESIRE OR CAPACITY TO BE OTHER THAN A BURDEN ON OTHERS?
Put another way:
FROM AN ECONOMIC PERSPECTIVE, IF AN INDIVIDUAL WISHES NOT TO BE A COST ON OTHERS, DOES THIS REQUIRE HE SET A PRICE ON HIMSELF?
This question might seem far-fetched for the purposes of solving economic problems, which I am to assume depend on things such as weighing up the issue of equality of opportunity versus the issue of scarcity of resources.
But I feel that in all my years of research I have yet to see anyone (at least who is alive today), who questions the underlying premise of all economic problem solving, and that it is everyone’s inherent desire and capacity to truck and barter as Adam Smith put it, or as I am putting it, ‘to set a price’. Could it be that the poor in our societies simply do not possess the same desire to set a price as the rest of society do?